Exam CBAP topic 1 question 447 discussion

Mitigation is correct. Risk-averse approach takes actions of avoid, transfer and mitigate risks. Transfer and Avoid are not the case here because BA is in between the project (as mentioned that he/she is validating the requirements and is only uncertain about one assumption) and subsequent action of full risk analysis to handle situation suggests that BA is willing to reduce the negative consequences of risk.

"C" - "full risk analysis to handle this situation" means plan to reduce possible negative consequences. Not to remove the source since it was "added to risk register" nor prevent it from happening as in Avoid.

In the scenario, the BA is dealing with an 'uncertain assumption', not a known risk, and also 'handling this situation'. BA adds the assumption to the risk register as a proactive step to analyze and manage it in case it turns into a risk during the project. Therefore, the appropriate strategy at this stage is mitigation 'C' to proactively address the uncertain assumption, rather than avoidance 'B', which would apply to known risks that the organization wants to avoid.

Avoidance (risk is removed to ensure it doesn't occur) Mitigate (risk is reduced at the min so it doesn't occur) BA performs a full risk analysis, means that the risk is not totally removed. I will go for "mitigate" first.

B=Avoidance as per the reisk version definition

Ans - B - An unwillingness to accept much uncertainty; there may be a preference to either avoid a course of action which carries too high a level of risk, or to invest more to reduce the risk.