As NiceKing says
foo(0) && foo(1) would evaluate to 0 && 4 with 4 implicitly converted to 1 for a logical && operation. The result of 0 would output as int.
fun(0) && fun(1) is FALSE. but even if it were TRUE would it still be a syntax error because there is no condition (like an IF ) to check for TRUE or FLASE ?
foo(0) && foo(1) would evaluate to 0 && 4 with 4 implicitly converted to 1 for a logical && operation. The result of 0 would output as int.
upvoted 3 times
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